Dez Bryant has spent each of his eight NFL seasons in a Dallas Cowboys uniform, but it appears the star wide receiver could be in store for a new home.
ESPN’s Adam Schefter reported Sunday that due to Bryant’s hefty contract, Dallas could look to release the three-time Pro Bowl selection over the offseason.
“This could be Dez Bryant’s last year with the Cowboys,” Schefter said, as transcribed by Larry Brown Sports. “He’s scheduled to make $12.5 million in each of the next two seasons, and if the Cowboys release Bryant they would save $8.5 million against the salary cap (in 2018). If he were a post-June 1 salary cap cut, Dallas would save $12 million, with Bryant still counting $4 million against the cap in 2019. With them having to come up with cap space and having to pay other players, there’s a question of how the whole Dez Bryant situation will turn out, especially when he was as vocal as he was in saying he will not take a pay cut.”
Bryant still managed to post a solid campaign despite the Cowboys’ roller coaster season. Entering Sunday’s regular-season finale, he’s accounted for 66 receptions for 814 yards with six touchdowns — his best season since 2014.
While Bryant might no longer be worth his high salary, it’s hard to imagine he won’t put up big numbers in the next handful of seasons. He’ll turn 30 in early November, but he’s shown no glaring signs that his skills are declining.
Dallas’ wide receiver depth isn’t very strong outside of Bryant, so it might be in their best interest to try and work things out with him before cutting him loose over the summer.
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